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• Latest ISC Certification CSSLP google drive
• Effective ISC CSSLP exam practice questions
• Related CSSLP Popular Exam resources
• Lead4Pass Year-round Discount Code
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Latest ISC Certification CSSLP google drive

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Latest updates ISC CSSLP exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following DoD directives defines DITSCAP as the standard CandA process for the Department of
Defense?
A. DoD 8910.1
B. DoD 5200.22-M
C. DoD 8000.1
D. DoD 5200.40
Correct Answer: D
DITSCAP stands for DoD Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process. The DoD Directive
5200.40 (DoD Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process) established the DITSCAP as
the standard CandA process for the Department of Defense. The Department of Defense Information Assurance
Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense
(DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP, in 2006. Answer: B is incorrect.
This DoD Directive is known as National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual. Answer: C is incorrect. This
DoD Directive is known as Defense Information Management (IM) Program. Answer: A is incorrect. This DoD Directive
is known as Management and Control of Information Requirements.

QUESTION 2
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas,
and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight areas of IA defined by DoD?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design and Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Correct Answer: ACD
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas,
and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Following are the various U.S. Department of Defense information
security standards: DC Security Design and Configuration IA Identification and Authentication EC Enclave and
Computing Environment EB Enclave Boundary Defense PE Physical and Environmental PR Personnel CO Continuity VI
Vulnerability and Incident Management Answer: B is incorrect. Business continuity management is an International
information security standard.

QUESTION 3
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process
for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security
information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Site accreditation
B. Type accreditation
C. Secure accreditation
D. System accreditation
Correct Answer: ABD
NIACAP accreditation is of three types depending on what is being certified. They are as follows: 1.Site accreditation:
This type of accreditation evaluates the applications and systems at a specific, self contained location. 2.Type
accreditation:
This type of accreditation evaluates an application or system that is distributed to a number of different locations.
3.System accreditation: This accreditation evaluates a major application or general support system. Answer:
C is incorrect. No such type of NIACAP accreditation exists.

QUESTION 4
Certification and Accreditation (CandA or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. Which of the
following is the correct order of CandA phases in a DITSCAP assessment?
A. Verification, Definition, Validation, and Post Accreditation
B. Definition, Validation, Verification, and Post Accreditation
C. Definition, Verification, Validation, and Post Accreditation
D. Verification, Validation, Definition, and Post Accreditation
Correct Answer: C
CandA consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order
of these phases is as follows: 1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the
mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary
to achieve Certification and Accreditation (CandA). 2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified
system\\’s compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready
for certification testing. 3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security
policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the
required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process. 4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final
phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This
phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk.

QUESTION 5
You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk
events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best
describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?
A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.
B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.
C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.
D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.
Correct Answer: C
Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased
to be credible. Answer: D is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: A is
incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid
statement about the qualitative risk analysis data.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security
into an existing application?
A. Watermarking
B. Code obfuscation
C. Encryption wrapper
D. ESAPI
Correct Answer: D
ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of
the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to
programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid
foundation for new development. Answer: C is incorrect. An encryption wrapper is a device that encrypts and decrypts
the critical or all software codes at runtime. Answer: B is incorrect. Code obfuscation transforms the code so that it is
less intelligible for a person. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the irreversible process of embedding information
into a digital media. The purpose of digital watermarks is to provide copyright protection for intellectual property that is in
digital form.

QUESTION 7
What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes
created to the project scope?
A. Project Management Information System
B. Integrated Change Control
C. Configuration Management System
D. Scope Verification
Correct Answer: C
The change management system is comprised of several components that guide the change request through the
process. When a change request is made that will affect the project scope. The Configuration Management System
evaluates the change request and documents the features and functions of the change on the project scope.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?
A. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
B. Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
C. Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO)
D. Recovery Time Actual (RTA)
Correct Answer: A
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in
time to which data must be recovered as defined by the organization. The RPO is generally a definition of what an
organization determines is an “acceptable loss” in a disaster situation. If the RPO of a company is 2 hours and the time
it takes to get the data back into production is 5 hours, the RPO is still 2 hours. Based on this RPO the data must be
restored to within 2 hours of the disaster. Answer: B is incorrect. The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the duration of
time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster or disruption in order to avoid
unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity. It includes the time for trying to fix the
problem without a recovery, the recovery itself, tests and the communication to the users. Decision time for user
representative is not included. The business continuity timeline usually runs parallel with an incident management
timeline and may start at the same, or different, points. In accepted business continuity planning methodology, the RTO
is established during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) by the owner of a process (usually in conjunction with the
Business Continuity planner). The RTOs are then presented to senior management for acceptance. The RTO attaches
to the business process and not the resources required to support the process. Answer: D is incorrect. The Recovery
Time Actual (RTA) is established during an exercise, actual event, or predetermined based on recovery methodology
the technology support team develops. This is the time frame the technology support takes to deliver the recovered
infrastructure to the business. Answer: C is incorrect. The Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO) is used in Business
Continuity Planning in addition to Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO). It applies data
consistency objectives to Continuous Data Protection services.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that
a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Correct Answer: A
The take-grant protection model is a formal model used in the field of computer security to establish or disprove the
safety of a given computer system that follows specific rules. It shows that for specific systems the question of safety is
decidable in linear time, which is in general undecidable. The model represents a system as directed graph, where
vertices are either subjects or objects. The edges between them are labeled and the label indicates the rights that the
source of the edge has over the destination. Two rights occur in every instance of the model: take and grant. They play
a special role in the graph rewriting rules describing admissible changes of the graph. Answer: D is incorrect. The
access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to subjects for objects. Answer: C is incorrect.
The Bell-LaPadula model deals only with the confidentiality of classified material. It does not address integrity or
availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The integrity model was developed as an analog to the Bell-LaPadula confidentiality
model and then became more sophisticated to address additional integrity requirements.

QUESTION 10
The Phase 1 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of
effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the
security requirements. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Negotiation
B. Registration
C. Document mission need
D. Initial Certification Analysis
Correct Answer: ABC
The Phase 1 of DITSCAP CandA is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the CandA level of
effort, identify the main CandA roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the
security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process
activities: Document mission need

QUESTION 11
Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or
program between two communicating hosts?
A. Denial-of-service attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Password guessing attack
Correct Answer: C
When an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two

QUESTION 12
How can you calculate the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) that may occur due to a threat?
A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
B. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)/ Exposure Factor (EF)
C. Asset Value X Exposure Factor (EF)
D. Exposure Factor (EF)/Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
Correct Answer: A
The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) that occurs due to a threat can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss
Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that
represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of
the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is
the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset
Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The
EF is required to calculate Single Loss Expectancy (SLE).

QUESTION 13
You and your project team have identified the project risks and now are analyzing the probability and impact of the risks.
What type of analysis of the risks provides a quick and high-level review of each identified risk event?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Seven risk responses
D. A risk probability-impact matrix
Correct Answer: B
Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for
additional analysis.

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